This 61 year old has a h/o CABG 20 years prior. Onset of chest pain 1 hour prior to calling 911. Here is the prehospital ECG:
The only finding that is highly suspicious for ACS in this tracing is the ST segment and T-wave in aVL. These two findings are early findings in inferior STEMI.
He arrived in the ED and had this ECG:
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| Now the findings in aVL are more pronounced, and the T-wave in lead III looks hyperacute, but still without ST elevation. Also, there is ST elevation in V1, a common sign of right ventricular STEMI |
A right sided ECG was obtained. (V1-V6 are really V1R through V6R, on the right chest):
The emergency physician activated the cath lab, and the interventionalist was not convinced but was persuaded to take the patient to the cath lab.
There was a 100% occluded proximal Right coronary artery. It was opened and stented.
12 hour peak troponin I (for what that is worth) was 37 ng/ml.
Here is the post cath ECG:
Lessons:
In our study of inferior MI vs. other etiologies inferior STEMI, 28% had ST depression and T-wave inversion in lead aVL before they had 1 mm of ST elevation in any inferior lead. This case is especially unusual in that no amount of inferior ST elevation was present; the diagnosis relied upon reciprocal findings and right ventricular findings.
I don’t have the whole cath report, nor an echo showing inferior wall motion abnormality. One might argue that this was an RV MI only, without inferior wall involvement (a non-dominant RCA that only supplies the RV). However, there are clearly inferior hyperacute T-waves which resolve, so this is an inferior wall MI.



There seem to be Wellen's waves in present in the lateral precordial leads. Is it possible that the pt has a lesion in his LAD that is the cause of the anterior injury pattern 2nd to a "reverese coronary steal" phenomenom? Caused by blood being shunted from the proximal/mid-LAD to the distal-LAD to make up for the deficit from an occluded RCA?
B/c it looks like areas supplied by the proximal RCA are more ischemic(e.g. the STE in R sided leads + the 2nd degree type II SA block + PR seg elevation in aVR and V1 possibly indicating an atrial infarction) than areas that are supplied by the distal RCA.
Dr. Smith,
In the post cath ECG, there is now a biphasic T wave in aVL, however it is "down-up", rather than "up-down".
Is this reciprocal to the reperfusion T wave you'd see (up-down) in the inferior leads? Although not visible in the inferior leads (much like the ST elevation was), can the reciprocal of reperfusion T waves be visible in aVL?
thanks,
David
Your thoughts are particulary plausible given that the patient has had a CABG. I don't know his anatomy, but it is conceivable that a graft could perfuse the distal RCA and not the proximal, and that there could be trouble with the graft to the LAD as well. I don't have the cath report.
Dave,
Great observation. There are two reasons for a down-up T-wave: 1) reciprocal to reperfusion T-wave 2) the "up" portion is really a U-wave, think hypoK. This one in aVL is reciprocal to reperfusion in III.
Steve